Scripture Queries and Answers: Greek and Hebrew Questions

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Q. 1. What authorities have ἔξοδον and δόξαν in Luke 9:3131Who appeared in glory, and spake of his decease which he should accomplish at Jerusalem. (Luke 9:31) respectively? Which is to be preferred?
2. Which is more exact, in Heb. 1:88But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom. (Hebrews 1:8), “Therefore God, [even] thy God,” &e.; or, “Therefore, O God, thy God,” &c.? And why? C.
A. 1. Only a few cursive manuscripts give δόξαν, evidently through δόξαν just before and δόξαν shortly after. Lachmann and Tischendorf do not so much as notice it as a various reading; but Griesbach and Scholz enumerate the juniors that so read, though of course following ἔξοδον. with all the best and most ancient authorities. Matthaei conjectures that this other may have crept in from Chrysostom.
2. As far as grammar is concerned, I think there need be no question that both the Hebrew and the Greek are capable of either construction. Compare Psa. 50:7; 67:77Hear, O my people, and I will speak; O Israel, and I will testify against thee: I am God, even thy God. (Psalm 50:7)
7God shall bless us; and all the ends of the earth shall fear him. (Psalm 67:7) for the nominative; and Psa. 43:44Then will I go unto the altar of God, unto God my exceeding joy: yea, upon the harp will I praise thee, O God my God. (Psalm 43:4) for the vocative, as noticed by another. In verse 8, ὁ Θεὸς is unquestionably used in a vocative sense; but this is no way necessary here. The context must decide; and to my mind the anointing would not be congruous with the vocative force in verse 9, so that I incline to the Authorized Version.